Re: 1/4 wave theory/cite the variance?

["Tesla list" <tesla-at-pupman-dot-com>]

Original poster: "davep by way of Terry Fritz <twftesla-at-qwest-dot-net>" <davep-at-quik-dot-com>

Tesla list wrote:
> 
> Original poster: "Ed Phillips by way of Terry Fritz <twftesla-at-qwest-dot-net>"
<evp-at-pacbell-dot-net>
> 
> Tesla list wrote:
> >
> > Original poster: "davep by way of Terry Fritz <twftesla-at-qwest-dot-net>"
> <davep-at-quik-dot-com>
> >
> > Tesla list wrote:
> >
> > > Original poster: "Ed Phillips by way of Terry Fritz
> > ><twftesla-at-qwest-dot-net>" <evp-at-pacbell-dot-net>
> >
> > > > The lowest frequency at which one end of an un-terminated solenoid
> > > > shows a purely resistive impedance.
> >
> > > > Paul Nicholson
> >
> > >         Clear and unambiguous.  It isn't obvious that that is what guys
> > posting
> > > here necessarily mean.
> >
> >         Errrr.
> >         There is a lower freq for the 'purely resistive impedance':
> >
> >         (wait for it....)
> >
> >         0 Hz
> >
> >         best
> >         dwp
> 
>         Started to agree, but then thought about it a bit more.  If you are
> looking at the impedance to ground of a typical coil I believe it would
> be a pure capacitance.

	Perhaps.
	However '....to ground....' did not appear in the original problem
	statement...
	8)>>

	(At the risk of being pedantic:
	the 'pure' capacitance to ground probably has some l and r in series
	with it....)

	best
	dwp