Re: 1/4 wave theory/cite the variance?

["Tesla list" <tesla-at-pupman-dot-com>]

Original poster: "Jim Lux by way of Terry Fritz <twftesla-at-qwest-dot-net>" <jimlux-at-earthlink-dot-net>

> >         0 Hz
> >
> >         best
> >         dwp
>
> Started to agree, but then thought about it a bit more.  If you are
> looking at the impedance to ground of a typical coil I believe it would
> be a pure capacitance.
>

OK.. I'll jump in here.. I almost commented the same (both ways...)... Let's
see.. if it were capacitive, then impedance is 1/(j*omega*C).. but, omega is
zero, so Z is infinite, if it is capacitive...

I think zero frequency is "not well conditioned"...Perhaps imaginary
impedance has no meaning at zero frequency?