Re: Saturation/the real meaning?

["Tesla list" <tesla-at-pupman-dot-com>]

Original poster: "Malcolm Watts by way of Terry Fritz <twftesla-at-uswest-dot-net>" <m.j.watts-at-massey.ac.nz>

Hi Harvey,
           You are absoultely right: the inductance of an inductor 
whose core has saturated drops to that of the same inductor with no 
core. It definitely doesn't drop to zero.

Regards,
malcolm

On 5 Apr 01, at 0:07, Tesla list wrote:

> Original poster: "harvey norris by way of Terry Fritz
> <twftesla-at-uswest-dot-net>" <harvich-at-yahoo-dot-com>
> 
> I see numerous posts where it is mandated that when a
> ballast method is being used to control the amperage
> input to a tesla coil, that if the inductor is
> saturated this will cause its amperage consumption to
> go way up. I can accept that fact. But I cannot accept
> the numerous quotes I have seen where it is
> additionally stated that at saturation the inductance
> or impedance goes to zero, which is the cause for the
> large amperages. Perhaps I have misread the context or
> meaning of that statement.
<snip>