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Re: PFC Question
- To: tesla@xxxxxxxxxx
- Subject: Re: PFC Question
- From: "Tesla list" <tesla@xxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 06 Nov 2005 17:35:17 -0700
- Delivered-to: chip@pupman.com
- Delivered-to: tesla@pupman.com
- Old-return-path: <vardin@twfpowerelectronics.com>
- Resent-date: Sun, 6 Nov 2005 17:45:59 -0700 (MST)
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Original poster: "Malcolm Watts" <m.j.watts@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
Hi Ed, variac users,
On 6 Nov 2005, at 11:15, Tesla list wrote:
> Original poster: Ed Phillips <evp@xxxxxxxxxxx>
>
> "Hi Dmitry,
>
> I hope you're correct, however, the performance curves from powerstat
> may suggest otherwise. I'm having a hard time understanding how there
> can't be any series inductance when, say, the setting as at the midway
> point. Maybe you or someone else can explain this.
>
> Gerry R. "
>
> Easy. The transformer has very close to unity coupling factor so
> the leakage inductance is close to zero. Do a Google search on those
> terms for a better explanation.
>
> Ed
In an ideal world yes, one would like a variac to have perfect
coupling between all turns. Due to its required geometry however it
can't. The turns are spaced out in a single layer around a toroidal
core. Closest to unity coupling is only obtained by having all
windings occupying the same space, a physical impossibility but one
you can get close to with a single bobbin'd transformer wound on an E-
I core or a potcore with interleaved windings. In the same breath
it's worth saying that even interleaving has its problems - the
better the coupling obtained between primary and secondary turns the
worse becomes the coupling of each winding to itself.
Malcolm