Gap Question

["Tesla list" <tesla-at-pupman-dot-com>]

Original poster: "Luke" <Bluu-at-cox-dot-net> 

It has been said that a gap using parallel pipes will be like having 
smaller gaps in parallel and will lower the gaps resistance / loses.

This does not make sense to me.  Maybe someone can enlighten me.

If what is meant is, lower resistance before the gap breaks down then it 
would be similar to decreasing the spacing.  This would be like reducing 
the spacing of the gap.  That would reduce breakdown voltage and be 
undesirable.

If what is meant is, lower resistance while the gap is arcing that doesn't 
make sense.  The gap only arcs at one place at any one time.  So how would 
that gap have less resistance if the arc area or distance has not changed.

Can any one show me what I am missing?

Luke Galyan
<mailto:Bluu-at-cox-dot-net>Bluu-at-cox-dot-net
http://members.cox-dot-net/bluu