RE: Math help...

["Tesla list" <tesla-at-pupman-dot-com>]

Original poster: "John H. Couture by way of Terry Fritz <twftesla-at-qwest-dot-net>" <couturejh-at-worldnet.att-dot-net>



-----Original Message-----
From: Tesla list [mailto:tesla-at-pupman-dot-com]
Sent: Wednesday, July 11, 2001 10:14 PM
To: tesla-at-pupman-dot-com
Subject: Re: Math help...


Original poster: "Antonio Carlos M. de Queiroz by way of Terry Fritz
<twftesla-at-qwest-dot-net>" <acmq-at-compuland-dot-com.br>

Tesla list wrote:
>
> Original poster: "Bert Hickman" <bert.hickman-at-aquila-dot-net>

> The measurement was done by:
> 1. Using a "magic" value for coupling (so that both the voltage and
current
> simultaneously hit zero upon completion of an energy transfer
> 2. Preventing breakout from the toroid even at peak secondary voltage
> 3. Permitting the peak secondary energy to transfer back into the primary
> circuit (easy, since it's virtually impossible to quench the gap under
> these conditions)
> 4. We then measure the primary capacitor voltage once the secondary's
> energy has completely transferred back into the primary capacitor.

This is an excellent method. If you see a linear decay from beat to
beat, the energy transferred to the secondary would be the average
between the energies measured at the primary. If the decay is
exponential,
use a geometrical average.
You can even find an "effective primary resistance" that accounts for
all the losses, and an "effective Q" for the circuit (although there
are actually two resistances and two Qs).

Antonio Carlos M. de Queiroz

---------------------------

Antonio -

In the losses you mention above what are the magnetic circuit flux losses in
the transfer of energy between the pri and sec coils? How do you calculate
these flux losses?

With the "effective primary resistance" what part does the magnetic flux
losses play?

John Couture

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